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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

12.06.2025 15:42

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

I caught my neighbor leaving his 12-year-old son home alone and he has not come back in 6 hours. Should I call CPS?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Trans athlete embraced as California track and field champion by peers while adult activists duel - San Francisco Chronicle

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why is it so hard to date nowadays?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.